On the same subject, I want to repeat a question Mike asked at the same venue in another context which has so far gone unanswered. Unsurprisingly.
Apart from what you've written on the passage in question before, could you engage my questions above to explain your position that the sufficiency of Scripture to equip the man of God, by way of profitability for training in righteousness, rebuke, reproof, etc., unto completeness for every good work is an affirmation of the proposition that the Scriptures are thus exclusively the rule of faith (which ostensibly presumes your other solas)?
He received no answer then, and I seriously doubt that he will ever receive one.
Bravo Mike! Your efforts are much appreciated.